Information requirement meaning

The early conciliation (EC) requirement Also referred to as mandatory Acas early conciliation, this duty requires a prospective claimant to supply certain information to Acas before submitting a claim in the employment tribunal, as part of the EC requirement procedure...

The early conciliation (EC) requirement The early conciliation (EC) requirement—sometimes referred to as mandatory Acas early conciliation—obliges a would‑be claimant to give Acas specified details, including certain information, before issuing an employment tribunal claim, as provided by section 18A(1) of the Employment Tribunals Act 1996 (ETA 1996). For more detail, see Practice Note: The early conciliation requirement. This Checklist explains which claims constitute ‘relevant proceedings’, and identifies those that are caught by the early conciliation requirement either because of: ETA 1996, s 18(1A), or a specific provision in the applicable legislation For guidance on relevant proceedings, see Practice Note: The early conciliation requirement—Relevant proceedings. Where a prospective claimant satisfies the early conciliation requirement, there is, in almost all cases, a statutory extension to the usual deadline within which a claim must be presented to an employment tribunal. This Checklist also indicates where the operative extension provisions on time limits are located, and highlights categories of proceedings to which those extension provisions...

This Checklist outlines the outsourcing requirements for common platform firms in the UK, set out in Chapter 8 of the Systems and Controls Sourcebook in the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) Handbook (SYSC 8). It also captures provisions that replace Commission Delegated Assimilated Regulation (EU) 2017/565 (the UK MiFID II Organisational Regulation) from its revocation on 23 October 2025. For fuller guidance on the outsourcing rules that apply to all firms (including common platform firms), see Practice Note: Financial services outsourcing. Firms should also be aware of obligations under the UK regulatory framework for operational resilience that relate directly to outsourcing; for information, see Practice Note: Operational resilience-UK regulatory framework. Which financial services firms do the outsourcing rules apply to? The outsourcing rules described in this Checklist apply to common platform firms, including: banks building societies investment firms For a detailed definition of common platform firm, see the FCA Handbook Glossary. Dual regulated firms should also refer to the parallel rules...

Overriding principles The DMCC’s core requirement is that a product’s “total price” must be shown prominently in every invitation to purchase (ITP). (For what constitutes an ITP, see here.) The total price covers all amounts the consumer will inevitably pay, which therefore includes any compulsory delivery charges. There is a limited DMCC exception. Where, owing to the nature of the product, a compulsory delivery charge cannot reasonably be worked out in advance, every ITP must explain how that charge will be calculated. This explanation must appear with the same prominence as the total price and must enable the consumer to determine the overall cost. Typically, equal prominence means placing this information beside or immediately below the total price. Before relying on this carve‑out, traders should be satisfied that the compulsory delivery charge genuinely cannot be calculated beforehand. The CMA has indicated that the exception will be applied narrowly...

In this issue: Probate Court of Protection UK taxes for Private Client HMRC Manuals updates Tax avoidance, evasion and non-compliance Insolvency—Private Client Digital assets and cryptoassets Charity and philanthropy Contentious trusts and estates Pensions, insurance and tax efficient investments International Question of the week Additional Private Client updates this week Daily and weekly news alerts LexTalk®Private Client: a Lexis®PSL community New and updated content Dates for your diary Trackers Latest Q&As Useful information Probate HMCTS probate enquiry line—temporary reduced hours From 14 February 2024, and for 12 weeks, the HMCTS probate helpline will run on reduced hours: 9am to 1pm, Monday to Friday. The HMCTS Probate Service remains available via web‑chat from 9am to 5pm, Monday to Friday. Source: HMCTS Probate LinkedIn post. MoJ urges those entitled to claim dormant funds held by CFO to act now The Ministry of Justice...

Cobult UG v TAP Air Portugal SA, Case C-76/23, ECLI-EU-C-2024-253 What are the practical implications of this case? This ruling permits carriers that had not previously offered travel vouchers as an alternative to monetary compensation to introduce them, on condition that passengers are provided with clear, transparent details, in plain and accessible terms, about the alternative reimbursement options available, and that the passenger is aware of the choices and gives informed consent to accepting travel vouchers in place of a cash payment. It also establishes that a passenger’s completion of an online form fulfils the requirement for a ‘signed agreement’ to be obtained in order to refund the price of the ticket by way of travel vouchers. Informed consent is not achieved where reimbursement is linked to: ambiguous or incomplete information; information expressed in a language not understood by the passenger; or the passenger having to take extra steps to obtain one form of reimbursement over another. Carriers...

Resource Note This Resource Note signposts key commentary, analysis and materials to aid interpretation and offer practical direction on using Chapter 2 of the Disclosure Guidance and Transparency Rules (DTR 2). Where relevant, it draws on: the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) Handbook FCA Knowledge Base—Procedural and Technical notes (formal guidance binding on the FCA) FCA consultation and discussion papers, policy and feedback statements, and warnings Primary Market Bulletins and other FCA publications legacy UKLA technical and procedural notes and the UKLA’s newsletter List!, where still pertinent assimilated EU legislation EU Directives and EU Regulations, where helpful to construing a provision Lexis+® UK analysis and resources Setting the scene What it covers: DTR 2 prescribes the framework for issuers to disclose and manage inside information, supporting timely and even-handed release of market-sensitive information. It also identifies specific situations permitting a delay to public disclosure of inside information, together with the safeguards required to keep such information...

Qualifying R&D expenditure (pre-1 April 2024) This Practice Note sets out the scope of qualifying expenditure for two R&D relief schemes, each subject to detailed commencement and transitional provisions: the research and development relief for small or medium-sized enterprises (SMEs) for accounting periods beginning before 1 April 2024—see Practice Notes: SME R&D relief—additional deduction (pre-1 April 2024) and SME R&D relief—tax credit (pre-1 April 2024); and the R&D expenditure credit scheme applying to accounting periods beginning before 1 April 2024—see Practice Note: R&D expenditure credit (pre-1 April 2024). Together, this Practice Note refers to these as the pre-1 April 2024 schemes. For information about the reliefs generally applying to accounting periods beginning on or after 1 April 2024, see Practice Notes: The merged R&D expenditure credit (post-1 April 2024) and Enhanced relief for R&D-intensive loss-making SMEs (post-1 April 2024). For details on what counts as qualifying R&D expenditure for those two post-1 April 2024 schemes, see Practice Note: Qualifying R&D expenditure...

SME R&D relief—additional deduction (pre-1 April 2024) This Practice Note addresses the principal research and development (R&D) relief for small or medium-sized enterprises (SMEs) for accounting periods beginning before 1 April 2024, subject to transitional provisions. For further detail, see Practice Note: SME R&D relief—tax credit (pre-1 April 2024). For the R&D expenditure credit that applies to periods beginning before 1 April 2024, see Practice Note: R&D expenditure credit (pre-1 April 2024). In this Practice Note, these two are collectively described as the pre-1 April 2024 schemes. For guidance on the schemes of relief for R&D generally applying to accounting periods beginning on or after 1 April 2024, see Practice Notes: The merged R&D expenditure credit (post-1 April 2024) and Enhanced relief for R&D-intensive loss-making SMEs (post-1 April 2024). SME R&D relief—additional deduction Where the relevant conditions are satisfied, an SME company may claim an additional deduction equal to 186% of its qualifying research and development (R&D) expenditure when computing profits chargeable to corporation tax...

This Agreement is entered into on [ date ] Parties 1 [ insert name of supplier ] [ of OR a company incorporated in [ England and Wales ] under number [ insert registered number ] with its registered office at ] [ insert address ] ( Supplier ); and 2 [ insert name of customer ] [ of OR a company incorporated in [ England and Wales ] under number [ insert registered number ] with its registered office at ] [ insert address ] ( Customer ) (each of the Supplier and the Customer is a party, and together the Supplier and the Customer constitute the parties). Background (A) The Customer [ insert information about the business of the Customer ] seeks to [ insert objectives of the project ]. (B) The Supplier supplies [ insert business of the Supplier ] and holds experience in [ insert services being procured ]. (C) The parties have decided...

1 Introduction to this guide 1.1 [ Insert firm name ] must, under the Money Laundering, Terrorist Financing and Transfer of Funds (Information on the Payer) Regulations 2017 (MLR 2017), SI 2017/692, as amended, establish systems and controls to deter money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing. 1.2 Our AML, CTF and counter-proliferation financing policy sets out the procedures adopted to meet these duties. This includes a requirement to carry out client due diligence (CDD), that is to: 1.2.1 verify the client’s identity and confirm it is accurate; 1.2.2 determine the beneficial owner where the client is not that person; and 1.2.3 gather information on the purpose and intended nature of the business relationship. 1.3 This guidance focuses on the second element, namely identifying the beneficial owner. 2 What/who is a beneficial owner? 2.1 A beneficial owner is the natural person or persons who: 2.1.1 ultimately owns or exercises control over the client; or ...

These explanatory notes sit alongside our CDD matter risk assessment form and offer guidance on what to consider in each section. Instructions for completion When do you have to complete this form? A CDD risk assessment form must be completed for every new matter [ to which our AML, CTF and counter-proliferation financing policy applies. If you are unsure whether the policy applies, please seek guidance from [ state who ] ] . This requirement also covers fresh instructions from current clients. Why do you have to complete this form? We are obliged to carry out CDD [ where the AML, CTF and counter-proliferation financing regime applies ] . CDD means establishing and confirming the client’s identity (unless already on our records) and evaluating the purpose and intended nature of the matter. Our approach must be proportionate to the degree of risk presented by the specific client and the specific matter. We must additionally consider the risks highlighted in our firm-wide risk assessment (FWRA)...

Section 213 of the Housing Act 2004 (HA 2004) sets out the obligations on landlords who take a deposit in relation to an assured shorthold tenancy. Every deposit must be handled in line with an authorised scheme (HA 2004, s 213(1)), and the scheme’s initial requirements must be met within a period of 30 days from receipt of the deposit (HA 2004, s 213(3))...

Amendments to the International Tax Compliance Regulations 2015 (2015 regs), SI 2015/878, introduced by the International Tax Compliance (Amendment) Regulations 2025, SI 2025/740, have brought in a compulsory Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI) registration obligation for certain trusts treated as ‘specified non-reporting financial institutions’. Under the 2015 regs, SI 2015/878, reg 24(1), a specified non-reporting financial institution is ‘a non-reporting financial institution which is a trust within the meaning of Section VIII(B)(1)(e) of the CRS or paragraph II(D) of Annex II to the FATCA agreement’. Set out below is a concise overview of the components of that definition. Financial institution (IEIM400610) The FATCA and CRS frameworks recognise four common categories of Financial Institution: custodial institution depository institution investment entity specified insurance company Where a private trust satisfies any Financial Institution definition, it will most commonly be treated as an Investment Entity...

For further information on this topic in general, see: National minimum wage—Eligibility Employment-related statutory rates and limits table Minimum wage compliance checklist Deductions from wages Some of the statutory exceptions to the right to receive the national minimum wage are outlined below. This response concentrates on the scenarios where the point most commonly arises. Workers only Only ‘workers’ are entitled to be paid the national minimum wage—see our Practice Note: Worker status—Definition of ‘worker’. Agency workers who would otherwise fall outside the definition of a ‘worker’ because they have no contract with either the supplier or the recipient of their services are nevertheless entitled to the national minimum wage. Home workers who might not otherwise be ‘workers’ owing to an absence of any personal obligation in the contract to carry out the work themselves are likewise entitled to be paid the national minimum wage. The genuinely self-employed are not entitled to be paid the national minimum...